Kant on the Ontological Argument for the Existence of God: Why Conceivability Does Not Entail Real Possibility
Abstract
1. Introduction
1.1. Leibniz on the Ontological Proof and Real Possibility
Thus, only God, or the Necessary Being, has this privilege, that he must exist if he is possible. And since nothing can prevent the possibility of that which contains no limits and no negation, and consequently no contradiction, this by itself suffices to establish the existence of God a priori.
I call a perfection every simple quality which is positive and absolute, and expresses without any limits whatever it does express. Now since such quality is simple, it is also irresolvable or indefinable, for otherwise it will either not be one simple quality, but an aggregate of several, or if it is one, it will be circumscribed by limits, and will therefore be conceived by a negation of further progress, contrary to the hypothesis, for it is assumed to be purely positive. Hence it is not difficult to show that all perfections are compatible inter se, or can be in the same substance. For let there be such a proposition such as ‘A and B are incompatible’ (understood by A and B two such simple forms or perfections—the same holds if several are assumed at once), it is obvious that this cannot be proved concerning them… But it could be proved concerning them if it were true, for it is not true per se; but all necessarily true propositions are either demonstrable, or known per se.
1.2. Kant’s Distinction Between Logical and Real Possibility
To cognize an object, it is required that I be able to prove its possibility (whether by the testimony of experience from its actuality or a priori through reason.) But I can think whatever I like, as long as I do not contradict myself, i.e., as long as my concept is a possible thought, even if I cannot give any assurance whether or not there is a corresponding object somewhere within the sum total of all possibilities (Bxxvi).
The concept of spirit has nothing contradictory in the representation, but whether it is possible that such an immaterial being can exist, this cannot be comprehended… [For] there can nevertheless be objects impossible in themselves that are assumed as possible because their concept experiences no contradiction.(vol. 29, p. 962—Metaphysik Vigilantius)
For if two entirely heterogeneous elements were not required for the exercise of these faculties, understanding for concepts and sensible intuition for objects corresponding to them, then there would be no such distinction (between the possible and the actual)… all of our distinction between the merely possible and the actual rests on the fact that the former signifies only the position of the representation of a thing with respect to our concept and, in general, our faculty for thinking, while the latter signifies the positing of the thing in itself (apart from this concept).(vol. 5, p. 402)19
1.3. The Second Amphiboly: Logical and Real Opposition
1.4. Kant’s Rejection of Leibniz’s Principle
2. Conclusions
Author Contributions
Funding
Institutional Review Board Statement
Informed Consent Statement
Data Availability Statement
Conflicts of Interest
1 | Proops (2021, p. 338) argues that Descartes and Leibniz offer distinct versions of the ontological argument. Following Jauernig (2024, p. 278), I take it that Leibniz’s argument is supposed to merely be filling in what he takes to be an implicit premise of Descartes’ argument, namely that God is possible. So I take it that any attack on Leibniz’s argument should also be taken to be directed at Descartes’ argument. |
2 | I take it that when Kant claims that “die Realitäten spezifisch nicht gegeben sind”, what he is trying to say is that no predicate is fully determined, and one could only know through conceptual analysis that a concept is the concept of an object that is really possible if the predicates contained in the concept were fully specified. The reason for this conclusion is that Kant thinks that all concepts contain marks (or predicates) that form the definition of the concept. To claim that an object of a concept is really possible is to claim that the properties (“Realitäten”) corresponding to the marks combined in the concept can themselves be combined in reality; that there is no real repugnance between the realities. The “realities” are real positive properties, and the way a reality can be “given” is to be a “mark” [a representation of the property]. I take it that in claiming that the marks of the realities are not “spezifisch” Kant means that they are not fully specified. Another way of putting this is that the marks are themselves concepts in the sense that they are essentially general, and can at least in principle can be further specified. But such further specification can only be done by appeal to intuition. It may turn out that when two predicates are further specified in this way, there is some incompatibility between them and so they cannot be combined to form the concept of a really possible being. But we cannot show through conceptual analysis, as the further specification of the predicates that make up the definition of the concept involves intuition. This remark on how I interpret this clause should become clearer later in the paper. |
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4 | Here I agree with Stang (2016) against Abaci (2019). As Stang (2016) explains, “Kant’s claim that existence is not a determination is equivalent to defining the object-level existence predicate in the natural way, using the quantifier ‘∃’. It is equivalent to claiming that the quantifier expression ‘there is’ ranges only over existing objects, that is, that there are no non-existent objects. On such a theory of existence, it is appropriate to call the quantifier ‘∃’ the existential quantifier. This also shows that, although the fundamental sense of existence for Kant may be given by the existential quantifier ‘∃’, he also has the resources to define an existence predicate for objects…” (p. 41). Abaci (2019, p. 4) rejects this claim that for Kant, existence can be understood as a first-order predicate that unrestrictedly applies to all objects. |
5 | As Garson (2024) explains in his SEP entry on Modal Logic, those quantifier expressions of natural language whose domain is world (or time) dependent can be expressed using the fixed-domain quantifier ∃x and a predicate letter E with the reading ‘actually exists’. For example, instead of translating ‘Some Man exists who Signed the Declaration of Independence’ by ∃x (Mx & Sx), the defender of fixed domains may write: ∃x (Ex & Mx & Sx), thus ensuring the translation is counted false at the present time.” |
6 | Thus Stang (2016) argues that “Kant’s objection deliver decisive objections to ontotheism only if they are supplemented with the further claim that there are no non-existent objects (on my interpretation, the meaning of the claim that existence is not a determination). That claim is Kant’s fundamental objection to ontotheism.” (p. 77—emphasis added). |
7 | One might, for example, have reservations about using “marks” and concepts” interchangeably. In an influential paper Smit (2000) has argued that Kant makes an essential distinction between intuitive and conceptual marks, and so if he is right, then not all marks are conceptual. On his account intuitive marks are non-general representations, something like tropes. Conceptual marks are essentially general. In this paper I want to remain neutral on this issue, so do not assume that all marks must be conceptual. If the proponent of intuitive marks is right then the notion “mark” is more general than the notion “concept” as there are marks that are not conceptual. But I do not think what one thinks of this distinction, is particularly significant for the arguments of this paper. For non-empirical concepts, such as GOD, it would seem plausible that none of the marks contained in the (nominal definition of the) concept are singular. And even if some of the marks that make up the concept of God were intuitive, as someone sympathetic to William James (1902) might argue, I do not think that this would significantly effect the arguments of this paper. |
8 | Nearly all philosophers today would reject Leibniz’s claim that all necessary truths are either self-evident or, in principle, provable. Some are motivated by Gödel’s incompleteness theorem which shows for any formal axiomatic system there are truths expressible within the system that cannot be proved within the system. Others are motivated by Kripke’s and Putnum’s arguments for the existence of necessary a posteriori truths. Gendler and Hawthorne (2002) explain the Kripkean position in the following terms: “On the post-Kripkean picture, even if it is not necessary that not-P, it may still be a priori that not-P (contingent a priori); and even if it is not a priori that not-P, it may still be necessary that not-P (necessary a posteriori). But then, by substitution, it may be possible that P but not Conceivable that P, or Conceivable that P but not possible that P. Thus, the contingent a priori seems to guarantee that there will be cases of possibility without Conceivability; the necessary a posteriori seems to guarantee that there will be cases of Conceivability without possibility.” (p. 33) Although Kant would not accept Kripke’s reasoning, as Kant does not base his position on considerations do with the analysis of language, he is committed to the post-Kripkean conclusion that conceivability does not entail real possibility. And this commitment is at the heart of Kant’s philosophy, for it lies behind (a) his rejection of rationalist metaphysics, (b) the distinction between the faculties of understanding and intuition. |
9 | The Leibniz methodology here appeals to double negation elimination—and double negation elimination is rejected by intuitionists in mathematics and logic. I take it that Kant’s argument against Leibniz’s position, which I examine later in this paper, has some affinity to intuitionistic criticisms of classical logic. |
10 | If Kant believed that Leibniz was not aware of such a distinction, then he is mistaken. Thus, for example, in the letter to Countess Elizabeth already cited, Leibniz claims that, “no doubt we sometimes think about impossible things and we even construct demonstrations from them. For example, Descartes holds that squaring the circle is impossible, and yet we still think about it and draw consequences about what would happen if it were given. The motion having the greatest speed is impossible in any body whatsoever… In spite of all that, we think about this greatest speed, something that has no idea since it is impossible. Similarly, the greatest circle is an impossible thing, and the number of all possible units no less so; we have a demonstration of this. And nevertheless, we think about all this.” (Leibniz 1989, p. 238). |
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13 | In making this claim, I do not have to assume that all the marks that make the (nominal) definition of a concept must be concepts, it is sufficient that some of the marks that make up the definition are concepts (general)—some of the marks that make up the definition of an empirical concept may be intuitive, for example the concept THE CAUSE OF THIS COLOUR SENSATION is general, but some of the marks that it consists of may be intuitive marks. (See Thorpe (2015, 2022) for an account of the way in which such concepts may play an essential role in perception). The important claim for my argument is that all concepts contain concepts as part of their definition, not that all the marks that are part of the definition of a concept are conceptual marks. It may be that some of the marks are intuitive marks. I want to remain neutral on this issue in this paper. |
14 | “All our concepts are marks, accordingly, and all thought is nothing other than a representing through marks.” (Jäsche Logic vol. 9, p. 58). |
15 | Here I agree with Chignell (2009) who argues that by the 1780s Kant had decided “that almost every non-mathematical concept is beyond our powers of definition; thus, we ought strictly-speaking to reserve the term “Definition” for mathematical contexts, and in philosophy speak only of “Erklärungen” (explanations).” (pp. 162–63). |
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17 | Since there is no logical contradiction in the concept of a non-spatio-temporal form of intuition, we cannot know that it is impossible for there to be a form of intuition in which immaterial spirits can be given as an object. Thus, it is logically possible that immaterial spirits are really possible. |
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19 | He clarifies this claim in his lectures, explaining that, “[b]y the intuition that accords with a concept the object is given; without that it is merely thought. By this mere intuition without concept the object is given, indeed, but not thought; by the concept without corresponding intuition it is thought but not given; thus in both cases it is not known. If, to a concept, the corresponding intuition can be supplied a priori, we say that this concept is constructed; if it is merely an empirical intuition, it is called simply an instance of the concept; the act of appending the intuition to the concept is called in both cases presentation (exhibito) of the object, without which (whether it occurs mediately or immediately) there can be no knowledge whatever.” (20:325). |
20 | With Chignell (2009, 2014) and Stang (2018) I believe that Kant was already committed to the position that the fact that two marks can be combined in thought without contradiction does not mean the properties corresponding to these marks can be combined in reality already in 1763 at the time of writing his Only Possible Argument. If this commitment is pre-critical, then there are reasons to assume that arguments for it do not depend upon assumptions based on his critical philosophy, which I believe is the case. Indeed, I believe that thinking through the consequences of such a commitment pushed him into his critical position. Such a reading is rejected by Abaci (2014) and Yong (2014) who argue (correctly) that the fact that two properties are really repugnant (in the sense of their consequences cancelling each other out) does not mean that they are metaphysically incompatible, and conclude from that that all that Kant is committed to during his pre-critical period is that properties can be really repugnant. |
21 | The OED defines amphiboly as, “an ambiguity arising from the uncertain construction of a sentence of a clause, of which the individual words are unequivocal; thus distinguished by logicians from equivocation, though in popular use the two are confused.” |
22 | Indeed, Kant probably would have been more accurate if he had called this chapter the “paralogisms”. Unfortunately, he uses this title elsewhere. |
23 | Here I agree with Jauernig (2021) who argues that “[e]ven if our pure concepts did give us reliable cognitive access to things in themselves, there would still be a problem, namely, that, contrary to the view of the Leibnizians, their intellectual principles are not valid for sensible objects. This is the problem that Kant addresses in the amphiboly chapter” (p. 190). If, following de Araujo (2023), we do not identify intelligible objects with things in themselves, then this claim does not commit Kant to the claim that things-in-themselves are necessarily subject to the Leibnizian principles that govern intelligible objects. Thus I substantially agree with de Araujo’s (2023) claim that “when Kant uses the expression ‘realitas noumenon’ he is doing nothing but adopting Leibniz’s view as a hypothesis” (p. 5). |
24 | |
25 | The distinction Kant draws here between logical and real opposition can be traced back to his pre-critical text, Attempt to Introduce the Concept of Negative Magnitudes into Philosophy where Kant argues that, “Two things are opposed to each other if one thing cancels that which is posited by the other. This opposition is two-fold: it is either logical through contradiction, or it is real, that is to say, without contradiction.” (vol. 2, p. 171) |
26 | Chignell (2009, p. 162) makes a similar point about Kant’s account of the difficulty of full definitions for philosophical concepts. |
27 | I want to remain neutral here as to whether all marks are conceptual or whether there are also non-conceptual “intuitive” marks as Smit (2000) has influentially argued. I am personally sympathetic to Smit’s position, but I hope my argument is neutral on this issue. If we assume there are intuitive as well as conceptual marks, my only commitment is that a concept cannot be fully defined in terms of intuitive marks alone. And I can see no reason why a proponent of intuitive marks would need to reject this principle. |
28 | I think that with mathematical concepts that are defined simulatively, we can know that the concept is defined exhaustively because we have defined the concept stipulatively, but we cannot know that such a concept is fully profound as at least some of the concepts that make up the definition are given and not defined stipulatively. |
29 | See Chignell (2009, p. 162) for an interesting discussion of Kant’s account of the full definitions. Chignell implies that Kant thinks that full definitions might be possible in Mathematics. But even if stipulative mathematical definitions might be exhaustive, there is no reason to think that such definitions can be made fully profound. |
30 | Such “logical anti-exceptionalism” is defended by philosophers as logic in very different camps. For example, both Timothy Williamson (2013) and Graham Priest (2016) both agree that decisions about which logic to ultimately endorse appeal to something like inference to best explanation. |
31 | I think the rationalist defender of the ontological argument would be committed to the position that a completely distinct definition of God is possible, I think the problem is that even if we had a real definition of God, we could not know that we had a real definition. And the ontological argument needs to start with us knowing that we have a real definition of God. |
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Thorpe, L.; Karadağ Thorpe, Z. Kant on the Ontological Argument for the Existence of God: Why Conceivability Does Not Entail Real Possibility. Religions 2025, 16, 1309. https://doi.org/10.3390/rel16101309
Thorpe L, Karadağ Thorpe Z. Kant on the Ontological Argument for the Existence of God: Why Conceivability Does Not Entail Real Possibility. Religions. 2025; 16(10):1309. https://doi.org/10.3390/rel16101309
Chicago/Turabian StyleThorpe, Lucas, and Zübeyde Karadağ Thorpe. 2025. "Kant on the Ontological Argument for the Existence of God: Why Conceivability Does Not Entail Real Possibility" Religions 16, no. 10: 1309. https://doi.org/10.3390/rel16101309
APA StyleThorpe, L., & Karadağ Thorpe, Z. (2025). Kant on the Ontological Argument for the Existence of God: Why Conceivability Does Not Entail Real Possibility. Religions, 16(10), 1309. https://doi.org/10.3390/rel16101309